Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 07:45
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Colorado confirms 3 more infections in airport-linked measles outbreak - CIDRAP
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Dakota Johnson Uses Tissue to Cover Cleavage Amid Wardrobe Malfunction - Yahoo
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
PlayStation State of Play June 2025: Everything Announced - IGN
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.