Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
16.06.2025 00:21
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why was Boromir corrupted by the One Ring, but not Faramir in The Lord of the Rings?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.